I have trouble believing this is the case. Perhaps only in a very limited set of circumstances. Can you give us some references?
The reason I doubt it is that it opens a huge can of worms about how I could entrap a third-party into a contract that they haven't accepted and haven't exchanged consideration for.
" If your non-compete is valid, then a third party who induces you to break it can face the same liability as you, and possiby more. To avoid this liability, the new employer will often terminate the new employee, which it is free to do."
The reason I doubt it is that it opens a huge can of worms about how I could entrap a third-party into a contract that they haven't accepted and haven't exchanged consideration for.